I usually play grammar by ear (I never ever bothered to formally examine the rules), so ns don't know why

"Thank you because that inviting mine family and I" and also "Thank you because that inviting me and my family" both sound exactly while

"Thank you for inviting I and my family" and also "Thank you because that inviting mine family and me" both sound incorrect.

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The ns vs me dominion doesn't really help; "Thank you for inviting me" sounds correct "Thank you for inviting I" is obviously wrong.

Can anyone assist with this?


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"Thank you because that inviting mine family and also me"

Two things space going on here.

1> always put you yourself behind the other person in a compound. For this reason I, me, etc. Always comes behind the other world - you, them, they, mine friends, my family, ... The list is endless -- in English, girlfriend don't count for as lot as the world you're linking to v a conjunction.

The 2nd problem is yes, really easier. Just think what you would certainly say if over there wasn't something (someone) else linked to it. Would certainly you ever say, "Thank you for inviting I"? If not, then don't use 'I' just due to the fact that they invited someone rather too.


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level 2
· 9y

I've been utilizing 'My friend and I' for the longest time, mainly since I was told that if you take the other human being out of the sentence it transforms the structure fully since you shed a subject/noun etc. Have the right to someone you re welcome clarify this?


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level 1
· 9y
What you really require to recognize is that "I" is for once you room doing the verb and also "me" is for when someone is doing the verb come you. Due to the fact that the inviting is being done to you, it's gotta it is in "me."


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· 9y

Well. What's continue is the the verb needs something in the objective situation to come after ~ it. ‘My family’ is the same whether it's topic or object, and if you usage ‘my family and also I’ together the object of a verb, because the family members bit comes first it kind of ‘shields’ the i from sounding too strange. (It is quiet wrong, in conventional written English, but it's the type of point you will hear a lot of in speech.) conversely, if ‘I’ comes automatically after the verb it's apparent straight away that it demands to it is in in the objective type ‘me’.


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level 2
· 9y

This is what threw me off, thanks!


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level 1
· 9y

If friend pare the sentence under to that essentials, the rules come to be clearer. Together you noted, "thank you because that inviting me" is correct since me is one object, not a subject. Thus, "thank you because that inviting mine family, friends, poodle, pets fish and me" is likewise correct.


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· 9y · edited 9y

We space talking around the particular indirect case forms of what is "my family and also I" and "I and also my family" in the (unstressed) straight case. "My family" doesn't change anyway, yet the indirect case form of "I" is "me".

Now the concern is what happens once we put the 2 together and also we really desire the indirect situation of the conjunction. Languages differ in just how they handle this. English as well as the significant European languages placed both components in the indirect case prior to joining them. So the correct creates are " my family and also me" and " me and also my family". This is all there is come say from an education prescriptive suggest of view.

Nevertheless, so countless native speaker of English agree with your initial intuitions, that us cannot case that " my family and also I" is totally wrong. What is more, far-reaching numbers of civilization have to be talking favor this because that centuries. Plainly there is some alternative grammatical pattern at work.

I guess over there are many ways the phenomenon deserve to potentially be explained. To get an ext information, that is ideal to replace "my family" by something because that which the straight object type is not similar to the indirect thing form. A great example is " him/he and also me/I" / " me/I and also him/he", and also with that there are some fascinating phenomena. View http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=3469 because that details and for a discussion of feasible explanation.

My explanation 1, i m sorry is similar to some of those mentioned in the Language log in post, claims that your grammatical ascendancy goes roughly as follows:

Direct thing or indirect, emphasize or unstressed, in English it's every the same (immutable) except for an individual pronouns.

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When you sign up with words v "and", the result is never a an individual pronoun, even when few of the ingredient are personal pronouns. Therefore, even complicated constructions involving a pronoun are immutable. Either "my family and also I" is exactly regardless of case, or "my family and me" is exactly regardless that case, or both room correct nevertheless of case. I.e., if one have the right to be supplied for X in "inviting X", climate it deserve to be provided in "X invited" and also vice versa.

Now we have decoupled the situation of "I"/"me" native the paper definition in which "my family and I/me" occurs, yet we must still choose in between "I" and "me". A standard selection in any kind of Indo-European language would certainly be the direct object case, so "I". This is the obvious an option if you have a bit of official grammar education. ~ above the various other hand, English also uses the indirect thing case, i.e. "me", as a stressed different of the straight object case. (E.g. In titles. Basically in the same situations where French uses "moi" instead of "je".) so that's additionally a perfectly good choice. In general, "me" is more idiomatic yet is rubbish by many pedants who merely deny that English has stressed variants the pronouns and also prescribe: "Who is that? - I!"

My explanation additionally tells united state why numerous native speakers, especially children, to speak things like "Me and also my brother went fishing."

My different explanation states that for part speakers, once a facility phrase is in the indirect case, only the an initial constituent gets significant as indirect case and the rest remains in direct case. This predicts "invite him and also she" and also "invite her and he" as 'correct'. If any kind of native speaker yes, really feels that these are correct (I doubt it), you re welcome speak up!

(This alternate explanation is not completely insane. E.g. In German, when you put a string of adjectives in prior of a noun that is in the datil case, then just the an initial adjective -- or the post preceding the -- is in the dative case, and the others room in the nominative case. That's similar and also weirder.)